Saturday, March 20, 2010

"Signum Philosophicum est Nota Absentis Rei, Signum Theologicum est Nota Praesentis Rei."

The words mean "the philosophical sign is a mark of an absent thing; the theological sign is a mark of a present thing." The proposition is recorded in the Tischreden of Luther (WATR 4.6666.8f), and it is used by Oswald Bayer (Martin Luther's Theology: A Contemporary Introduction to state a general principle in Luther's semantics: "The signum itself is already the res; the linguistic sign is already the matter itself (52). For Bayer, the promissio that is the center of Luther's theology is unpacked by equating the word in language with the reality itself. In promises, words are not given either extensional (or even intensional) interpretations, but themselves are their own reality. This view of things - - which I have elsewhere termed the donational view of language - - is thought by Bayer to be the deepest presupposition of Luther's theological semantics, a view which Bayer claims is akin to the view countenanced by Austin in his 1955 Harvard lectures later published as How to Do Things with Words: the notion of performative language. Bayer writes:

"In contrast to every metaphysical set of statements that teach about the deity, this assertion [e.g. "To you is born this day a Savior"] declares that God's truth and will are not abstract entities, but are directed verbally and publicly as a concrete promise to a particular hearer in a specific situation. 'God' is apprehended as the one who makes a promise to a human being in such a way that the person who hears it can have full confidence in it" (53).

In evaluating this we must remember, of course, that it has proven difficult in practice actually to distinguish clearly performative and constative assertions. Bayer's position, however, supposes they can be compartmentalized. He goes on to say, in fact, that the performative sentences of promissio, for Luther, must be sharply distinguished either from the descriptive or the imperative. Quoting again:

" . . . one cannot take the promise, which is not a descriptive statement, and transform it into a descriptive statement. Secondly, one cannot take the promise, which is not in the form of a statement that shows how something ought to be done, and transform it into an imperative. . . . the truth of the promise . . . .is to be determined only at the very place that the promise was concluded; more accurately, where it was constituted. This means it is located within the relationship of the one who is speaking . . . . and the one who hears. . . . If it is correct that the one individual is in the position of hearer in the relationship that is constituted by this promise, and if that is verified, it excludes the possibility that he himself can verify the promise. . . . To seek to verify this oneself would be atheism; it would be no different than for me to try to verify myself in my own subjective piety or if I would seek to verify myself by means of a defined atheism. In such situations a human being wants to speak his own truth about himself, but he makes God into a liar in the process" (54-55).

There are a number of claims made here that must carefully be distinguished and examined. That there are such statements as "I promise to pay you $1000" is, of course, true. That such statements cannot be fully analyzed into a set of descriptive statements is true as well. Reporting is a different linguistic activity than promising. And that such statements are not themselves reductively analyzable into a set of imperative statements is true also. However, one must distinguish between a reduction of the performative to the descriptive and the imperative, and an unpacking of the palpable presuppositions that the performative has, presuppositions that are statable in terms of the descriptive and imperative.

In "I promise to pay $1000", the following statements are putatively presupposed: "I exist," "you exist," "$1000 exists," "I ought to pay you $1000." The first three sentences are descriptive, and the fourth imperative. Now notice that here the verba of the sentence do not themselves constitute the rem, but presuppose definite res: the existence of two agents, and the taking on of an obligation. This is not to say that 'x promises z to y' can be reduced to the existence of x, y and z, and a set of imperative statements concerning the three. There is more to promising than the taking on of an obligation. However, an obligation is nonetheless presupposed in the promising.

With regard to the promise of salvation "to me," it would seem that the same structure of presuppositions obtain: God exists, I exist, and some state of affairs to which 'salvation' properly applies exists (at least in a possible world) such that God is under obligation to bring about salvation to me. (This is rather jarring, of course, to think of God being under obligation, but it does seem like promising demands it. Maybe it is "analogical obligation" . . . . It seems that if God were to retain impassibility, promising could maybe not be attributed to God at all.)

But let us examine more close what Bayer has to say about truth and verification. He claims that the "truth of the promise is determined where it is constituted," in the one speaking and hearing. But what exactly, is this to mean? Clearly, Bayer here is not talking about a correspondence, coherence, or even pragmatic notion of truth. In fact, we are told, that the individual cannot verify the truth of the promise. To do so, moreover, would involve one in atheism. This claim demands analysis.

If 'Bob promises to pay me $1000 on April 1' and does not do so, he has broken his promise. This much is clear. Moreover, we would not normally say that his promise is true or false. It was, to use Austin's language, an "infelicitous' performative utterance, but it was not false. Truth or falsity does not append to promises qua promises. So it is not clear what the "truth of the promise" is supposed to mean. One could say that the promise was made, the promised being kept presupposed some state of affairs S, such that if S does not obtain then the promise is broken. Or alternately, one might say that the descriptively-stated presupposition for the keeping of the promise did not obtain such that that statement is not true. But this is not to say that the promise was false; it merely was not broken. One could then state whether it was true that the promise was broken. Such statements about promises have definite truth conditions; we can easily verify when they might be true or false. Bayer does not seem interested, however, in the truth-value of statements about felicitous performative promise statements, but rather about promises themselves.

Bayer's discussion of verification is quite an independent issue from putative presuppositions of promise-making. It might be atheism, I suppose, to claim that we can verify the truth of the descriptive statements that state of affairs S obtains such that S makes true the truth of the statement, 'God has kept promise P'. But I am not sure anything could finally count against the claim that God's promises are kept. One might, in fact, claim this as an analytical truth, or better, a rule by which we play the language-game of the Christian God. Clearly, there are a number of issues that Bayer needs to clarify.

Personally, I have always been chary of the move to an exclusive analysis of fundamental theological assertions in terms of performative utterances, a move that does not presuppose metaphysical and philosophical assertions like these:

  • There is a God
  • This God has intentionality towards His creation
  • One attitude of divine intentionality is promising, and promising keeping
  • Agents exist who are so constituted as to be cable of being promised to by God.
  • The ontological and semantic situations are different than epistemological one: Truth is logically distinct from verification
I invite others to post comments on this issue. I want someone to give me an example of a performative utterance that presupposes neither descriptive nor imperative utterances. It seems like this is necessary before one gets too excited about an analysis Austin gave for certain kind of utterances in 1955.

What Luther was talking about in the Tischreden concerns the ontological situation, not the semantic one. Luther knows that the language of theology must always refer to that which is present because, God truly is ubiquitously present in Christ reconciling the world unto Himself. Later in the text, Bayer makes clear, for Luther, that philosophy knows neither the efficient or final cause of this world. Perhaps Luther's statement quoted at the beginning of this post has more to do with this, than a general denial of extra-linguistic signification in the primary assertions of theology.

5 comments:

  1. Dennis--

    Thanks for the post over at White Mountain.
    This understanding of the Word of God as "donational" or "performative" proves quite interesting. I'm still in the midst of grasping at the nuances.

    In Forde's early essay: "LAW AND GOSPEL AS THE METHODOLOGICAL PRINCIPLE OF THEOLOGY," --which can be found here--(https://docs.google.com/Doc?docid=0AYH9R514gdixZGN4dzVnbl8xMWh0d3RwaGh2&hl=en), he declares: "The Word of God is not a thing, not a proposition, it is an event." The method of law and gospel makes God's Word inseparable from what God's Word DOES.

    That God's Word is known by what "IT DOES" says to me that we dealing with what Austin says is "performative" versus what is normally that of God's Word as "informative." Is this what you're driving at in the difference between the "ontological and semantic" and the "epistemological" situations?

    The gap between what is performed in the promise of revelation (God's Word) and what is known epistemologically by reason and observation is faith's abode. The tension wrought in the contrast of promise and experience provides the crucible for the formation of theologians. It is the "tendatio" which wrings out the "oratio" whose answer drives to "meditatio."

    It would seem, though, that for God to be "true" when he speaks, that there must be some possible world wherein the content of the promise is indeed already delivered. Could one posit this as the difference between time and eternity? The New Creation, which has broken into this world though the person of Jesus Christ raised from the dead, is the venue wherein the content of the promise already realized.

    This Old Creation, subjected to the brokenness of sin, suffers under the consequences of time's passage: entropy, if you will. Posit that this time of entropy is but a subset of eternity. This subset has as a beginning the expulsion from the Garden--the rejection into entropy; and it has as an ending the resurrection of the dead--the reception into eternity. Eternity then is the "bridge" which encompasses the previous paradise of the Garden and the expected paradise of the New Creation. Eternity is the possible world wherein the content of what is promised already obtains. Thus, the aphorism: "already but not yet."

    Tim

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  2. Anonymous4:30 PM

    I have had similar thoughts about the definition of the Gospel as an "unconditional promise." The Gospel is unconditional in the sense that I do not have to meet any conditions for to make it true. However, the Gospel is true only if God has indeed raised Jesus of Nazareth from the dead.

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  3. One must distinguish the being of the Word of God being in what the Word does from the knowing of the Word of God being in what the Word does. One must also have some clear identity conditions for what the Word does. This is important in that faith is hidden.

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  4. Anonymous11:31 PM

    This is a great topic.

    Dennis, I agree. There are propositional presuppositions which are necessary conditions of believing, namely, that the performative speech act of forgiveness is even possible. Justification being done in the present necessitates having certain presuppositions about the God and the universe. Even with infant baptism, it is the practice that the congregation, sponsors, and parents confess the propositions and narrative of faith in the Nicene creed. Baptism is performed with the expectation that the child will be raised in the faith, which includes a continual hearing of the gospel but also includes growing in the grace and knowledge of the Lord Jesus Christ.

    That the sign is the matter itself--that the proclaiming of the gospel (primary theology) is the doing of the gospel to someone--does not necessarily mean that the epistemology of faith doesn't presuppose a secondary theology. Problems arise when secondary theology doesn't find its end in primary theology, but without secondary theology the gospel can be corrupted or be epistemologically ineffective--God's giving it, but the person is not hearing it.

    Secondary theology is necessary and primary theology is the end goal, but, when it comes to people who haven't any of the presuppositions whereby primary theology makes sense, I would not start with primary theology of the absolution--unless we can extend the (I-thou) language of primary theology to acts of mercy and words of law (including the dialectical tearing down of other people's paradigms). Prima facia, I don't see any problems with calling these things primary theology to the degree you are Christ's representative.

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  5. Thanks for this. Your use of 'primary' and 'secondary' presuppose the age-old question: Is ontology a function of epistemology, or is epistemology a function of ontology. Our Enlightenment heritage is to understand being upon the horizon of knowing, but not knowing upon the horizon of being. Accordingly, proclamation becomes primary for sons and daughters of the Enlightenment. However, I can imagine a pre-Enlightenment situation wherein that which is primary is that which makes true the proclamation. Luther's situation is pre-Enlightenment,and it is important sometimes to grasp what he is doing with lenses other than Kantian ones. Thanks!

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